origin of people of Scotland and northeast Ireland

Yes but Arthur has died on mounth Baton , and some placing it near Hadrians wall .
I dont know did he invented it , but lots of elements are strangely similar to Osethian Narth sagas .
 
There are not a tribe called Caladuni in Callaecia (preroman name of Galicia, from the celtic *kalla-ak-yo-s 'the country of the woods', like NE brit. Callevi). There is an 'oppidum' (a town) called Caladunum, near Bracara, and two personal names en Callaecia with the name Caladuna.

Not Scytian people can you find in Callaecia, but Yamnaia or Yamnani, if we count stellaes, statues-menhir or war axes.
 
You mean peoples from Yamna culture ( North of Black sea )?
 
I refer that who open this tópic departs from a mistake on having confused the place name Caladunum with the name of a tribe.

The Caledonians, according to the Latins, is distinguished of the rest of the populations of Britannia and differ from the rest of the populations of Britannia: long members and reddish hairs, front to the gaulish aspect of the British and Iberian of the Wales and Cornwall populations. But certainly the legend has something really.

As well it would be partly true that the process of indo-europeicisation (and later celticisation) on the Atlantic Façade can be attributed to people from where 2500 years later would have settled the Scythians, but not by the own Scythes.

We can presuppose it from a genetical point of view(i), anthropological (ii), archaeological (iii) and linguistic (iiii) point of view:

The Arrival to Western Spain of the of the haplogroups y-dna R1b1b2 and G2a (totaling 73% of the total Galician haplogroups). It is not necessary remind you here the high frequency and antiquity of s116 in the Western Iberia, Liguria, Armorican peninsula and British Isles. But it seems to be in the west of Iberia where probably has its origin, as predicted some years ago D. Faux, spreading with the Hispanic bell-beaker phenomenon extending to the Rhone estuary and, following its course, towards the Alps, and by sea to Brittany and the British Isles. While, most of the haplogroup I (12-13 %) have a Germanic origin (suebi and marcomani) in Galicia.

Others haplotypes present in the Galician and Asturian population, is the dominant AH7.1 (HLA-A3/B7/DR15), which is very frequent also in south of Great Britain, and Ireland; the AH44.2, which is typical of the Atlantic regions; AH18.1, which is common in the Mediterranean; and the AH8.1, which is frequently found in Central European regions and Scandinavia. The matching of the dominant haplotype AH7.1 (HLA-A3/B7/DR15) in Galicia and Asturias and its high frequencies, also, in Ireland and the south of Great Britain, seems to indicate a degree of communication and genetic interchange in this area, which corresponds to a Celtic cultural matrix/structure, even though this cultural entity/identity may not necessarily entail a racial entity/identity.
In other hand, in the Galician population the most common phenotype, in contrast with the Basques, is the european GM*3 23 5* haplotype that represents 73% and the most common KM phenotype is KM (-1) (79.6%) and its corresponding KM*3 allele reached at frequency of 89.2%, which is within the range of European values. Galician population belongs to cluster C3 (like Netherlands, Belgium, Germany, Austria, Switzerland, France and half Western Iberia).

‘The Helgason indo-european mtDNA’ (U2 + U3 + U4 + I + W) reached in Galicia 12.3%: cf. Ireland 14.16%, Walles 3.3%, Cornwall 11.6%, Belgium 6.3%, France 5.4%, Denmark 3.1%, Austria 9.4%, Switzerland 8.4%, Italian Alpes7.9%, Germany meridional 12%, Cantabria 10.3%, Central Spain 4.4%, Spain Meridional 6.5%, Catalonia 26.6%, Portugal 7.7%).

(ii) The same situation can be seen with a important dental study, of bell-beaker epoch, by J Desideri. The anthropological detectable changes in the Alps and other European areas, suppose the superposition of populations from proceeding the Iberian Peninsula it would have followed the course of the Rhone, that would have followed the course of the Rhone, introducing the bell-beaker phenomenon.

(iii) At the end of the Copper Age and beginning of the Bronze Age to burst into the half western Iberian the ‘stela anthropomorphes, statues-menhir and Mother Godess populations’, that will distinguish absolutely the Atlantic Facade of the rest of the European west. This type of material culture connects directly with the Kemi Oba Culture (Yamnaya Tribes) and Usatovo, that is projected along the Danube to reaching the N of Italy and penetrating in the SW Iberia, via Sardinia.

Where is the actual origin of the Bell Beakers we can trace until the Iberic Peninsula (confirmed by radiocarbon dating). And above all, why did this expansion follow two directions: along the Atlantic coast and the northern Mediterranean coast. The situation in Portugal in the middle of the third millennium, with the exacerbation of the characteristics of the final Neolithic (extreme density of sites, fortifications and building of monuments, social and individual markers) may constitute the only one answer to these two questions.

The Iberian bell-beaker whole is clearly defined by his morphology, technology and chronology (2900 b.C. in examples from the center of Portugal, Galicia and the Superior Iberian Plateau (and from Liguria and the Rhone Valley), whereas in the Nothern Europe this chronology does not go beyond of 2450 b. C.. The oldest stylistic predominance in Galicia is the 'peiteado' with nit comb or with shell, that spreads to the French Britanny.

Petroglyphs (also called rock engravings) with similar representations in Galicia, Ireland and Valcamonica (the oldest) and battle axes or maces in Galicia. This single tipología can correspond with own archaeological models of the Culture of Kemi Oba and Usatovo. The horse and the carts, like military or prestygian symbols of a certain elite.

It is born prosperous Atlantic commercial trade and interchanges, moving copper from SW Iberia and British Islands, tin from Galicia and British Islands and gold from Galicia. In the Atlantic facade products are seen such and indenticals. The commercial interchanges also arrive at the Mediterranean (as recently it has been demonstrated with the appearance of a Galician engrave where representing an Egyptian crewed ship, dated between 1900-1500 a.C.).


(iii) It is particularly curious that in where all these phenomena are observables we can detect celtic languages. From Netherlands to the Sw of Poland and Bohemia; from South of Iberia to Ireland. Today we think about an initial koiné (Indo-European > palaeoceltic > protoceltic) with different degrees from learning and dialectal differentiation according to the geographic scale, environment, possesion of objects of prestige and imitation of the Elites language.

Today a process of hallstatización in Iberia cannot be maintained (It has never been demonstrated arqueological sources), since the celtic language registered in Tartesos is previous and contemporary to Hallstatt. On the other hand, the ‘urnenfelderkultur’ in the peninsular NE , Levant, Pirineos, and in Gascogne and Aquitania presupposes not the indo-europeization of this zone, but his aquitano-iberization (cf. Almagro, Lorrio). The marker 49f indicates the mutation SRY2627+ (not present in Galicia: 0.6%) and divergence between Basque and Iberian language 3000-3500 years ago, and we can found too in this area the marker 22, irrelevant in Western Iberia and Central Europe. The historical Iberian is a zonal standard language, but different to the popular language: cf. Barcelona: eukin; Girona: altikem, kelboio, kosi, lasbe, osato, baRtoin, boboRba, tibaRSar; Tarragona: letaombi; Azaile (Huesca): antu, abaio, aboki, atikis, irsal, kutui, baiti, balte, bartar,barbor, bateba, belu, bokau, tikambe. It is not Iberian standard it seems Basque.

the maritime Atlantic trade of products was very, very important, and continued being with the arrival of Unetice's trends; Atlantic models continue being imported and being imitated in the Alps and Renania to La Tène, of the same one that there import and imitate models style Unetice in the Atlantic Facade. This situation forces to tended establish one ' lingua franca, like , for example, the Egyptian, the Ionic, the Iberian or the Phoenician; this language will be the western Atlantic Celtic characterized for the original indo-european Q (kw). The Gaul and the Italic languages would derive from the ligúr (palaeoceltic-italic: and where the settlement of the stelas people is equally important). Look that the Ligúr is a language clossed to the Lusitanian (atlantic palaeoceltic).

The standard atlantic language, protoceltic, with its local varieties, it is therefore fragmented. But there is a distintive element to detect its antiquity, beyond the own names of the rivers. The normal presence of the indo-european phoneme p in western Iberia, classically considered not celtic, but with the appearance of words with this phoneme in Lepontic (uperams, coplutum, pala) has stopped being one of the principal linguistic characteristics of the celtic language.

The lack of p is an indo-european anomaly, that could be related to badly learning of this language (the same it is observed in germanic, in front of the Slavic languages, or in armenian where is lack of p by caucasian interferences). It is in half western Iberia, where the language is closest to Indo-European common and also in the ligur-alpine region. The dialectos rest of the celtics dialects are stumped as they move away of both matrices and they even conserve premegalíticos linguistic symptoms that have been related to bereber, as the complexity of his verbal system, the plurality of the plural, the syntactic order, etc. (Schrijver 2003, Kuhn, 2005)
 
Wow. What a huge post. I must say however, much of this is very speculative. In regard for the Caledonians, in my opinion they were essentially the same as the Britons. The name "Caledoni" itself makes sense as early Brythonic ('caled-' = hard + augmentative '-on').

I would also like to point out that Tartessian was a non-Indo-European language. Likewise, Lusitanian was a non-Celtic language (though a Indo-European one, close to the Celtic languages, but equally close to the Italic languages). Also, you have a large Lusitanian substrate in many areas in Iberia that by the time history records them (3rd century BC) are Celtic.

I'd also like to point out that *Kw to *P innovation was not just done by Gaulish, but also by Brythonic, Osco-Umbrian and by Greek. In contrast, the *Kw of Proto-Indo-European was retained in Goidelic, Celtiberian, Germanic and Latin.
 
Since Untermann to Koch had ever suspect that the Tartesian writing was an Celtic dialect...Personal names, Tribes, Place Names, Gods that you can learn in these inscriptions are celtic, like LUKUBO NERABO (the god Lug (in celtic dative plural) of the Nerii (the same name as a celtic tribe of Galicia))

More close to the italics is the Celtiberian (Untermann, 2009) and Celtiberian and Lusitanien are intimatly related, because Celtiberian is the evolution of the occidental hispanic languages (Untermann 2009, de Bernardo Stempel, 2004).

Today the lack or not of indoeuropean phoneme p is not distinctive to distinguise waht a celtic language is...because then Lepontic is not a celtic dialect and the gaulish tribe called Pleuri or Pleuxi was not celts....and similar de gaulish godess APADEVA.

The lack of p is AN INDO-EUROPEAN PHONOLOGIC ANOMALY...
 
Since Untermann to Koch had ever suspect that the Tartesian writing was an Celtic dialect...Personal names, Tribes, Place Names, Gods that you can learn in these inscriptions are celtic, like LUKUBO NERABO (the god Lug (in celtic dative plural) of the Nerii (the same name as a celtic tribe of Galicia))

Let me say this, Koch postulated that Tartessian might be a Celtic language. However, there is no hard evidence for this.

More close to the italics is the Celtiberian (Untermann, 2009) and Celtiberian and Lusitanien are intimatly related, because Celtiberian is the evolution of the occidental hispanic languages (Untermann 2009, de Bernardo Stempel, 2004).

Nope. Lusitanian is quite distinct from Celtiberian, actually. It's a non-Celtic language. Most notably, Lusitanian does not make the loss initial *P which is a common innovation of the Celtic languages.

Today the lack or not of indoeuropean phoneme p is not distinctive to distinguise waht a celtic language is...because then Lepontic is not a celtic dialect and the gaulish tribe called Pleuri or Pleuxi was not celts....

The general consensus is that Lepontic was very much a Celtic language. It is a P-Celtic language just like Brythonic and Gaulish. As I said, the P-Celtic languages (just like some non-Celtic languages) shifted the *Kw sound from Proto-Indo-European to *P.

The lack of p is AN INDO-EUROPEAN PHONOLOGIC ANOMALY...

No need to write upper case. ;( You might call it a "phonolog anomaly" yes. See what I wrote earlier about Lusitanian. Anyways, it absolutely conceivable how the loss of *P in Proto-Celtic might have happened, because similar steps are attested in other language families (in Indo-European, that is). What is a far great anomaly is the shift from *Kw to *P, which, as mentioned happens also in Osco-Umbrian and Greek.
 
In a recent publication: Jürgen Untermann: Galicia and Celtiberia. Common and different characteristics, 2009, talking about the comparisons of the western celto-Hispanic dialects with the italic, said:

If we entered comparisons with the italic languages, in fact there are some surprising phenomena, but not in Galicia but in Celtiberia: most surprising they are the completions of singular ablative with long and consonant vowel -d, like in Latin and osco-umbre (cf. celtiberian sekobiriked, aratid, orosid), linked this also with the lusitan (issaicid); the lusitanian does doenti, resemblance to Latin duint; the celtiberian didonti like osco-umbre dident, Latin didet. The verbal form rueti in lusitanian, celtiberian audeti.

The gentive forms are identical between lusitanian (arimo/arimom) and celtiberian (eladuno/eladunom) and have common lexicon like Taurus (lus. taurom/celtib. Tauro), or o(v) ila (lus. oilam/celtib. oilaunu), porko (lus. porcom/celtib. [.]vaporconi). But the celtiberian makes plural dative in - bos, similar to Latin, the lusitanian in -bo like Gaul.

It is parallel evolutions between the celto-Hispanic of tipological kind that the archaic celtic languages have in common with the italic dialectos. About the famous p, there is no lexical distinction between the celto-Hispanic and celtiberian. It is a recent fact (cf. lepontic uvamogozis, copluto) that the celtiberian joint party with related languages of the north, and that separates of all celtic hispania remaining.
 
In a recent publication: Jürgen Untermann: Galicia and Celtiberia. Common and different characteristics, 2009, talking about the comparisons of the western celto-Hispanic dialects with the italic, said:

If we entered comparisons with the italic languages, in fact there are some surprising phenomena, but not in Galicia but in Celtiberia: most surprising they are the completions of singular ablative with long and consonant vowel -d, like in Latin and osco-umbre (cf. celtiberian sekobiriked, aratid, orosid), linked this also with the lusitan (issaicid); the lusitanian does doenti, resemblance to Latin duint; the celtiberian didonti like osco-umbre dident, Latin didet. The verbal form rueti in lusitanian, celtiberian audeti.

The gentive forms are identical between lusitanian (arimo/arimom) and celtiberian (eladuno/eladunom) and have common lexicon like Taurus (lus. taurom/celtib. Tauro), or o(v) ila (lus. oilam/celtib. oilaunu), porko (lus. porcom/celtib. [.]vaporconi). But the celtiberian makes plural dative in - bos, similar to Latin, the lusitanian in -bo like Gaul.

No. There are some crucial/fundamental difference is sound laws between Lusitanian and Celtiberian, however. Celtiberian, being a Celtic language, loses Proto-Indo-European *p. This is very much attested (for example the prefix ro- as opposed to pro-). Lusitanian, very much in contrast, retains *p from Proto-Indo-European. Lusitanian is, by the very definition, not a Celtic language. It is possible to derive Celtiberian from Proto-Celtic, but in contrast, it is not possible to do the same for Lusitanian.

It is parallel evolutions between the celto-Hispanic of tipological kind that the archaic celtic languages have in common with the italic dialectos. About the famous p, there is no lexical distinction between the celto-Hispanic and celtiberian. It is a recent fact (cf. lepontic uvamogozis, copluto) that the celtiberian joint party with related languages of the north, and that separates of all celtic hispania remaining.

Sorry, I have no idea what you are trying to say there. I would like to point out that there is a large amount of non-Celtic typonomy in western Iberia, and that you have a large area (especially Gallaecia) with mixed Celtic/non-Celtic typonomy.

My opinion is that Lusitanian was essentially a pre-Celtic language that arrived on the Iberian penninsula before Celtiberians (or other Celtic-speaking peoples) did.
 
It was not my intention to debate about linguistic affairs, but to expose the necessity of the use of multidisciplinar studies to maintain synchronous coherences in the ethnogenic formation of the Atlantic facade.

Naturally, perhaps SEGONTIA PARAMICA, PALLANTIA, COMPLEGA or COMPLUTUM was not celtiberians towns, and APLONIOCVM (Clunia: OSHA nº 56), PINTOLANC(VM) (Candeleda, Ávila: HEp 4, 1994, 128 = AE 1976, 344), P[I?]GANCOM (Huerta del Rey - Peñalba de Castro, Burgos: CIL II 2803 = ERClu 78 = HEp 2, 1992, 138) or PELENDONES CELTIBERORVM are not celtiberian familiar groups or tribes.

PENDVSAE (Segobriga, Cuenca), PEICACOMAE (Hinojosa de la Sierra, Soria), MATRIBVS APILARIS (Badarán, La Rioja) or [•]VAPORCONI (Sos del Rey, Zaragoza) are not celtiberian gods and goddess. The celtiberian personal names with original indo-european *p have the same statiscal percentage than lusitanian, where stand out the celtiberian personal name PETRAIOCI, (Lara de los Infantes: Abásolo 1974:67 nº70: cf. lusitanian PETRANIOI, Lamas de Moledo).

But, we can take the example celtib. PARAMICA (cf. callaecian, PARAMAECO, astur PARAMECO). According with your point of view, and the traditional point of view, would be a pre-celtic word because it is preserving the indo-european *p. This contradicts the superlative suffix form ie. *-(s) ºmmo- > celt. *(s)-amo- that is a celtic grammatical distinctive feature, being an innovation.

Following your criterion, the celtic superlative celt. *-(s)amo- or it is not an exclusive celtic suffix or is pre-celtic, and that we can find as a common element in all of the western dialects (lusitanian inclusive: cf. ANDAMO, MEDAMO, CLOUTAMO), where is an innovation too.

The preservation of *p is an archaism and an archaism never is a grammatical pertinent feature. The superlative have this pertinent range, then ‘páramo’ must be considered, therefore, a celtic word.

But we find something more. The western dialects present, in many cases, archaic forms with the innovatives. With the innovation *-(s)amo- we have de old indo-european superlative *-isto- (cf. CARISTI) or the arcaic word [MARS] BORUS with the new innovations *BHOR-YA- (cf. BOREA), *BHOR-VO- (cf. BORBIDA), BHOR-MA- (cf. BORMANICO). Only these two last ones detect in Celtiberian and Gaul.

This question indicates its antiquity degree and its proximity to the proto-Indo-European. Then, we can think about a language that contains palaeo-celtic features.

I insist that the lack of ie. *p is a linguistic anomaly, not a distinctive characteristic of the celtic language, like others, for example, part of the Gaul numeral and verbal system with not Indo-European characteristics.

Now, it is your question follow the traditional celtic and indo-european studies or the best sellers of Fco. Villar and Co.
 
It was not my intention to debate about linguistic affairs, but to expose the necessity of the use of multidisciplinar studies to maintain synchronous coherences in the ethnogenic formation of the Atlantic facade.

Naturally, perhaps SEGONTIA PARAMICA, PALLANTIA, COMPLEGA or COMPLUTUM was not celtiberians towns, and APLONIOCVM (Clunia: OSHA nº 56), PINTOLANC(VM) (Candeleda, Ávila: HEp 4, 1994, 128 = AE 1976, 344), P[I?]GANCOM (Huerta del Rey - Peñalba de Castro, Burgos: CIL II 2803 = ERClu 78 = HEp 2, 1992, 138) or PELENDONES CELTIBERORVM are not celtiberian familiar groups or tribes.

PENDVSAE (Segobriga, Cuenca), PEICACOMAE (Hinojosa de la Sierra, Soria), MATRIBVS APILARIS (Badarán, La Rioja) or [•]VAPORCONI (Sos del Rey, Zaragoza) are not celtiberian gods and goddess. The celtiberian personal names with original indo-european *p have the same statiscal percentage than lusitanian, where stand out the celtiberian personal name PETRAIOCI, (Lara de los Infantes: Abásolo 1974:67 nº70: cf. lusitanian PETRANIOI, Lamas de Moledo).

But, we can take the example celtib. PARAMICA (cf. callaecian, PARAMAECO, astur PARAMECO). According with your point of view, and the traditional point of view, would be a pre-celtic word because it is preserving the indo-european *p. This contradicts the superlative suffix form ie. *-(s) ºmmo- > celt. *(s)-amo- that is a celtic grammatical distinctive feature, being an innovation.

Following your criterion, the celtic superlative celt. *-(s)amo- or it is not an exclusive celtic suffix or is pre-celtic, and that we can find as a common element in all of the western dialects (lusitanian inclusive: cf. ANDAMO, MEDAMO, CLOUTAMO), where is an innovation too.

The preservation of *p is an archaism and an archaism never is a grammatical pertinent feature. The superlative have this pertinent range, then ‘páramo’ must be considered, therefore, a celtic word.

But we find something more. The western dialects present, in many cases, archaic forms with the innovatives. With the innovation *-(s)amo- we have de old indo-european superlative *-isto- (cf. CARISTI) or the arcaic word [MARS] BORUS with the new innovations *BHOR-YA- (cf. BOREA), *BHOR-VO- (cf. BORBIDA), BHOR-MA- (cf. BORMANICO). Only these two last ones detect in Celtiberian and Gaul.

As I said before, there obviously is a Pre-Celtic (Lusitanian) substrate in Gallaecia. Which reaffirms what I have been saying all along, namely that the Celtic-speaking peoples were not the first Indo-Europeans to arrive on the Iberian penninsula.
However, the Celtiberian language itself is per definition a Celtic language because of the loss of Initial *p.

This question indicates its antiquity degree and its proximity to the proto-Indo-European. Then, we can think about a language that contains palaeo-celtic features.

It does not contain any "Paleo-Celtic" features as you call them. They are by definition non-Celtic.

I insist that the lack of ie. *p is a linguistic anomaly, not a distinctive characteristic of the celtic language, like others, for example, part of the Gaul numeral and verbal system with not Indo-European characteristics.

You keep calling it a "linguistic anomaly", but it is a common sound law found in all Celtic languages, and sound laws as you may know have no exceptions. If they have apparent exceptions, these are governed by their own set of rules. The development towards this as easily conceivable from other sound laws. Specifically via the intermediate steps *p -> *f -> *h.

The shift of *p to *f is cross-linguistically pretty common, for example in the Semitic languages (several times independently there, actually) and perhaps more demonstrative in the Germanic languages:

- Latin "Pater" vs. English "Father"
- Latin "Pes" vs. English "Foot" (also German "Fuß")
- Latin "Pellis" vs. German "Fell"

The shift from *f to *h is less common, but is attested, for instance in Spanish:

- Latin "Ferrum" vs. Spanish "Hierro" (iron)
- Latin "Fungus" vs. Spanish "Hongo" (mushroom)
- Latin "facere" vs. Spanish "hacer" (to do)

The loss of *h is also quite common cross-linguistically.

Therefore, the loss of *p, while unique, is absolutely conceivable with sound laws that are attested elsewhere. If we assume a series of sound shifts occuring in Proto-Celtic (*p -> *f -> *h -> Ø ) it is very much possible to end up with the loss of *p in Proto-Celtic. In fact, the late form of such a shift is possibly attested in the term "Hercynian" forest.

In regard for non-Indo-European characteristics, in your scenario somehow the Celtic languages originated on the Iberian penninsula and spread from there to northwards and eastwards. This would mean that there were non-Indo-European language spoken on the British Isles and in Central-Western Europe at a time at which Iberia would have already been Indo-Europe. However, this is totally non-consistent with the image we see by the time of historic record: non-Indo-European languages survive on the Iberian penninsula (Basque-Aquitanian, Iberian, Tartessian), and there are no-non-Indo-European languages in Central Europe. The situation on the British Isles is even more drastic, as we see no non-Celtic languages.

We also see that all linguistic innovations (along with "archaeological innovations" like the spread of iron working) come from east to west, not vice versa. The model that Lusitanian is a Pre-Celtic language fits much better with all other observations than the idea that the Celtic languages developed on the Iberian penninsula and then spread into (non-IE) Northwestern and Central-Western Europe.

Now, it is your question follow the traditional celtic and indo-european studies or the best sellers of Fco. Villar and Co.

Extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence. And I am sorry to say this, but I find the evidence extraordinarily lacking.

If Lusitanian is closer related with the Celtic languages, then it should have common innovations found in Lusitanian and the Celtic language family not found anywhere else.
 
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Taranis yourself are recognizing what I am saying.

The instability of *p Indo-European and its laws are only applicable to certains European languages and none of the Indo-European dialects known (lepontic, italics dialects, ligur, venetic, ilirian, Thracian, dacian, Greek balto-Slave dialects, hitita, sanscrit, Vedaic, Persian, etc., and Hispano-celtic). It is in the Armenian (that loses *p by interference of the caucasian languages: cf. Zeliakov, 2004) and in the germanic dialects, insular celtic and Gaul where we observed that instability, product, perhaps, of an implantation of low intensity or by imitation, incapable to assimilate suitably the phonologic realitation of the Indo-European phoneme *p or because they have not that phoneme.

The celtiberian partial loss of *p, has been explained brillantly by X. Ballester. It only can be motivated at the contact of the aquitanian and iberian languages, that they lack *p, from which receives the metallurgical swords innovations from the first, and from the second, writing, City-States, coin, among other things.

Is not the traditional explanation of the example of Hercinia how it loss. It is *p > /v/ as much in Lepontic (cf. UVAMOGOZIS), like in Celtiberian and Callaecian, where a great instability in the group *pl is observed until the total loss of *p: *pletisama (IE. *pletos) >/vletisama/: celtib. BLETISAMA > celtib. LETISAMA, today Ledesma (Burgos and other placename in Galicia, prov. Corunna); and the Callaecian evolution *planiobris (IE. *plan-yo-bhrig-s) >/vlaniobris/: call. BLANIOBRI > call. LANIOBRI, today Lañobre (prov. Corunna).`In situ' you can see this disappearance.

The explanation of the step lat. f > h in Castilian language is erroneous, because apparently takes Basque influence and it does not appear in any other romanic language: Galego, Catalan, French, Portuguese, Italian dialects.

On the other hand, if you admit above the celtiberian celticity in samples with *p: PENDVSAE, PEICACOMAE, PETRAIOCI, PELENDONES, PINTOLANC(UM), P[I?]NGANCOM, PARAMICA, etc.; or in celtiberian personal names samples like PROTENIVS, PRILENIA, PELLICVS, LAPOENA, APONIA, COMPEDIA, LAPOENA, LVPVS, LVPORVS, PAENANICVS, PAESICA (3), P[A]ESIN(A)E, PAESU(RO), PAN(N)A, PEDA CARI F. •PEDITAGA, etc., ., I do not understand the reasons why you don’t think with a similar point of view with the celtic languages of western Hispania.

If you think that I believe that Galicia is top ten of the celticity, you are mistaken. Mainly, because the concept `celt' is a general designation applied to different populations to take part in the Atlantic Culture and inside the geographic limits from the Bell Beaker phenomenon, with a common personality, that affects language, customs, religion, architecture and utensils.
 
Taranis yourself are recognizing what I am saying.

The instability of *p Indo-European and its laws are only applicable to certains European languages and none of the Indo-European dialects known (lepontic, italics dialects, ligur, venetic, ilirian, Thracian, dacian, Greek balto-Slave dialects, hitita, sanscrit, Vedaic, Persian, etc., and Hispano-celtic). It is in the Armenian (that loses *p by interference of the caucasian languages: cf. Zeliakov, 2004) and in the germanic dialects, insular celtic and Gaul where we observed that instability, product, perhaps, of an implantation of low intensity or by imitation, incapable to assimilate suitably the phonologic realitation of the Indo-European phoneme *p or because they have not that phoneme.

The celtiberian partial loss of *p, has been explained brillantly by X. Ballester. It only can be motivated at the contact of the aquitanian and iberian languages, that they lack *p, from which receives the metallurgical swords innovations from the first, and from the second, writing, City-States, coin, among other things.

Sorry, but how can you so readily dismiss what I said? That the shift of *p to *f is actually attested elsewhere? I mentioned Proto-Germanic, and I also mentioned the shift occured in the Semitic languages. For example, compare Akkadian Kaspu (silver) with Hebrew Kessef (money).

You should also consider that this shift certainly didn't occur independently in Insular Celtic and Gaulish (which you seem to assert), but actually already occured in Proto-Celtic. What you propose makes absolutely no sense.

Is not the traditional explanation of the example of Hercinia how it loss. It is *p > /v/ as much in Lepontic (cf. UVAMOGOZIS), like in Celtiberian and Callaecian, where a great instability in the group *pl is observed until the total loss of *p: *pletisama (IE. *pletos) >/vletisama/: celtib. BLETISAMA > celtib. LETISAMA, today Ledesma (Burgos and other placename in Galicia, prov. Corunna); and the Callaecian evolution *planiobris (IE. *plan-yo-bhrig-s) >/vlaniobris/: call. BLANIOBRI > call. LANIOBRI, today Lañobre (prov. Corunna).`Iin situ' you can see its disappearance.

Another problem I like to point out with your scenario is that there is no evidence for Basque/Iberian being spoken in the British Isles or in Western-Central Europe. Even the evidence for Basque in Gaul does barely extend beyond the Garonne river. There is also, conversely, the issue that there are relatively few Celtic loans into Basque, which would be expected if the languages would have had so much contact as you seem insert (ie, large-scale Basque substrate).

There is also another, far more simple explanation for what you call evidence for 'in-situ' disappeareance: Gallaecia was not a linguistically homogenous area. This is actually more consistent with what we see in Antiquity: we see a bewildering number of small tribes on a fairly small area. We see place names that are often mixed-Celtic, mixed-non-Celtic, inhabited by Lusitanian- and Celtic-speaking peoples alike. This is more plausible than the ludicrous claim that a sound law, which is otherwise fundamentally defining an entire language family, is in free variation.

The explanation of the step lat. f > h in Castilian language is erroneous, because apparently takes Basque influence and it does not appear in any other romanic language: Galego, Catalan, French, Portuguese, Italian dialects.

It does not matter, and it is not erronerous. It is an evidence that the sound law occured elsewhere. This utterly disproves that it is a unqique "phonological anomaly".

A successive shift *p -> *f -> *h -> Ø very much explains the absence of *p in Proto-Celtic. What is also very critical here is that whatever sound it had in the intermediate stage, it had an effect that it was conditioned differently before *s and *t, specifically yielding *x in Proto-Celtic. Consider the Celtic words for 'seventh':

Gaulish "Sextametos"
Old Irish "Sechtmad"
Modern Irish "Seachtú"

(compare Latin "Septimus")

I must admit that to my knowledge the word 'seventh' is unattested in Celtiberian, however the loss of *p in Celtiberian is well-attested:

- Celtiberian "ro-" ("robiseti", compare Latin "pro").
- Celtiberian "Are-" ("Arevaci", compare Gaulish "Arverni", "Aremorica" but Greek "Para-")
- Celtiberian "Uer-" ("Uerzizonti", "Uerzaizokum", compare Gaulish "Vercingetorix", but Greek "Hyper-")

On the other hand, if you admit above the celtiberian celticity in samples with *p: PENDVSAE, PEICACOMAE, PETRAIOCI, PELENDONES, PINTOLANC(UM), P[I?]NGANCOM, PARAMICA, etc.; or in celtiberian personal names samples like PROTENIVS, PRILENIA, PELLICVS, LAPOENA, APONIA, COMPEDIA, LAPOENA, LVPVS, LVPORVS, PAENANICVS, PAESICA (3), P[A]ESIN(A)E, PAESU(RO), PAN(N)A, PEDA CARI F. •PEDITAGA, etc., ., I do not understand the reasons why you don’t think with a similar point of view with the celtic languages of western Hispania.

No, it's not. If you say that Lusitanian is a Celtic language, you might as well say that Latin is a Celtic language, because it is just as "Celtic". Unless you find common sound laws that Lusitanian and the Celtic languages have in common, which are NOT shared by other languages, there is no way to uphold that Lusitanian is Celtic. I've said this before, you cannot throw 100+ years of methodology in linguistics over board to "prove" that language X is related with language Y.

Also, have you considered the opposite direction? That these are Lusitanian loans into Celtiberian/Gallaecian?

If you think that I believe that Galicia is top ten of the celticity, you are mistaken.

Well, you made that impression.

Mainly, because the concept `celt' is a general designation applied to different populations to take part in the Atlantic Culture and inside the geographic limits from the Bell Beaker phenomenon, with a common personality, that affects language, customs, religion, architecture and utensils.

Honestly, that definition is rather non-sensical. In my opinion, the Celtic languages were originally not an Atlantic phenomenon. It gets clear from the commonalities with the Italic languages (common sound laws, common words for metals etc.), as well as the interaction with Proto-Germanic that the origins of the Celtic languages have to be sought in the Alpine region, not in the Atlantic region.

The Beaker-Bell Culture is also way too old and more importantly far too extensive (in particular extending into southern Scandinavia) to explain the spread of the Celtic languages. The claim that Beaker-Bell represents an early branch of Indo-European is much more sensible. It's also clear that religiously, Gallaecia and Lusitania were quite distinct from Ireland, Britain or Gaul, with deities you find there that are worshipped nowhere else and vice versa. From that perspective it makes a lot more sense that the Lusitanians indeed represent an earlier (read: non-Celtic) wave of Indo-Europeans into the Iberian penninsula, and that Gallaecia as we notice it by the time the Romans arrive on the Iberian penninsula was an ethnically mixed area.

There is also the issue that the term "Celt" was used very inconsistently in Antiquity, generally only refering to the people of Gaul and their eastern cousins in the Alps and on the Balkans (where it was used interchangably with "Galatians"). The Celtic-speaking peoples on the Iberian penninsula were only inconsistently refered to as Celts, and the people of the British Isles were never refered to as "Celtic" in Antiquity, despite the fact that they were exclusively Celtic-speaking.
 
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Yes...naturally, it is sure that is the rest of the Indo-European dialects that present the anomaly to have original *p Indo-European, because, without a doubt, most normal in Indo-European is lose this *p.

Certainly that Galicia was not a linguistic homogenous area. It is for that reason that placenames like Brigantium, Lugosonis, Valabriga, Nemetobriga, Asseconia, Avobriga, Coeliobriga, Lemica, Dactonium, Caladunum, Bracara, Avobriga, Touda. Novium, Borbida, Dactonium, Tongobriga, Aviliobris (where brigs > brix > bris, like callaecian personal name Caturis = gaul. Caturix), Londobris, Lubris, Berobreo (Berobrivo), Cinginia, Araduca, Letiobris, Elanobriga, Aetobriga, (B)laniobris, Ocelum, etc. belong to your `preceltic' linguistic stock. Also the first element of the 92 placenames finished in the ‘preceltic’ suffixes' -bre (< *-brig-s) and -bra (< *-briga), or more than fifty finished in the suffix, also `preceltic', -on-ya-/-an-ya-. Preceltics are the Galician medieval placenames like Alisantia, Anderatis, Uxamo, Sorica, Nerica, Segadurum, Brigos, Segovia, Celtigos, Vernovesicum, Avantia, Iconia, Condatus, Nemetos, Bendania, Loentia, etc..

And the names of the rivers? All of them we can catalogue as `preceltics', see Deva, Navia, Minium, Tamara, Avo, Letia, Ulia, Lerici, Anaris, etc. Preceltic too are te Galician names of God like Lugoubo, Nantosuleis (< nanto-sulevis, cf. brit. Sulevia), Cosus (cf. gaul. Cosemi), Useis (cf. gaul. Ussama/Uxama), Bormanico (cf. gaul. Bormano), Navia (cf. brit- Naviô), Toutaticos (cf. gaul. Toutatis), Revus (irish. ré ‘moon’), Tarbo, Mocio, etc..

All of them are extremely and deeply `preceltic', the pluses `preceltic' of the `preceltic' names, unimaginably `preceltic', and without no type of homogeneity.

Certainly, the celtiberian samples with *p are not celtiberian either. It is very well known that the celtiberian had the sudden fit to adore the lusitanian Gods like PENDVSAE, PEICACOMAE, or the Matris Apilaris. The fashion for the lusitanian *p, naturally `preceltic' or `paraceltic' quickly extended by the Celtiberia. The celtiberians decided to be called with lusitanian personal names, even some nonexistent ones in Lusitania. They designated to his clans with lusitanian names and, even, the more important celtiberian tribe, the Pelendones, decided also to be called with a ‘preceltic’ or ‘paraceltic’ name . Famous *pro > ro of robiseti becomes to restitute as we can see in the celtiberian personal name PROTENIUS.

In short….celtic, celtic….only the Gauls…That is right.
 
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Let me say (or repeat) this: if you think Lusitanian was a Celtic language, please go ahead and show me the sound laws that Lusitanian has in common with Gaulish, Irish, Scots Gaelic, Breton and Welsh. Please, disprove me. I'm all ears.

EDIT: Let me provide you with two useful links to elaborate my point of view. These are wikipedia articles, and they sum up my points quite well:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Comparative_method#Origin_and_development_of_the_method

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sound_law#Principles_of_sound_change
 
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In fact, it is possible to be affirmed:

1) many words with *p, lexicographical, personal and topic names, perfectly are integrated into the phonologic system of the celtic Hispania that would suppose an act of violence to attribute them to another language, not celtic;

2) there is no the minimum evidence against the hypothesis that the loss of p had taken place into the own history of the celtic languages, that is, it is necessary to count the marginal celtic dialects at which this phonetic change arrived later or never

The first question is the inequality of examples between Celtiberia (with long texts in Iberian writing) and the lusitanian and the hispano-celta area, (with latter and short inscriptions, mainly god names). The second is the generalized habit to compare the lusitanian with the hispano-celta, specially vettón and callaeco.

In fact, two realities can be delimited by the distribution of their god namess. The common gods to all the western area: NAVIA (cf. brit. NAVIO), BANDUA (RN irish BANNUA) and REVUS (irish ré ‘moon’), and the common some kind of sacred stone ritual called CROUGIA (cf. irish cruaich ‘stone’) in Lusitania and Callaecia

They are specifically callaecians like LVGOVBO (as well as NL. call. Lugosonis, EN astúr LUGGONES, EN call. LOVGEI), NEMETO- (NL call. NEMETOBRIGA (2), EN call. NEMETAVI, NEMEDI) and COSVS. The lusitanians are ENDOVELLICOS, TREBARUNA, ARENTIA/ARENTIO. Only astur-callaeco LVGVS links with the celtiberian.

Except for the celto-hispánico, it is, celtiberian, lusitanian and hispano-celta (vetton, vacceo, callaeco, astur and cantabro), there is not another celtic dialect that preserves the original indo-european *p. On the other hand, neither gaul nor celtiberian we can not see the innovations detected from the celtic dialects in western Iberia, like lenition, sincope or the change*w > f (but. gaul. FRITVS (DLG 100)/VRITVS, FLATVCIAS (Larzac)/VLATOS, and the french word and placename if (< *iwos) ‘yew’, similar lus. IFADEM[-].

- The Lusitanian and Hispano-celta genitive pl. is no very different to the celtib. *o(m): lus. TVROCO(M), vett. EBURANCO(M), call. LEMATICOM, celtib. KO.N.TE.BA.KO.M.

- The dative pl. -bo is modernized with respect to the celtiberian (-bos) coinciding with the gaul-greek: cf. lus. ARABO, call. LUGOUBO, respect to this ‘ist im (nichtkeltibeerischen) Westen die geläufige Form des dat-ablativ plural und erscheint inschriftlich in zahlreichen pluralischen Götternamen’ (Meid 2000:13, 22).

- Remains of ‘conservatio’ of the diphthong ie. *eu.: cf- call. TRI-LEUCA/galo LEUCO, although it tends to normal *ou: cf. call. TOVTATICO-/celtib. TOUTO/galo TEVTATIS/TOVTATIS. The diphthong ie. *ei > e: RN gall.(3), ast. cánt. DEVA < protocelt. *dêva- ‘godess’

- The loss of *p into the initial consonantic group *pl-.: cf. call. LAROVCV (< *plaros); in the inner group ps is simplified to ks > ss > s, like celtiberian: call. VSEIS/celtib. USEIZU.

- The consonantic group *-nd- its preservated in all occidental dialects occidentales in front of Gaulish that simplified to -nn-: cf. ast. BENDOGABRVM, gall.med. BENDANIA/gaul. BENNA.

- ‘Conservatio’ of the group -mb-: call. CAMBETVM., protocelt. *kambo- + suf. protocelt. *-et- :

- Dative sing. is regular in -ui/-u (with its arcaics datives oi/oe), like gaulis and celtiberian dative. stem -u. Preset a classic celtic monopthongatio, -ei > *ê: COSVE (protocelt, *koks-u-ei), REVVE (< protocelt. *rewu-ei ‘the God Moon’: cf. irish ré (< *rew-yâ-) ‘moon’.

- Lenition of the intervocalic oclusivas , with an anticipation some centuries before than in welsh: call. TOUDA <*touta. The loss of the intervocalic -g-: NP call. CELTIENVS < protocelt. *kelti-genos, NL ast. SESAMON < *segisamô, NP lus. MEDVENVS (protocelt. *meidhu-genos. And sincopes: cf. NL call. SESMACAE < *segisama-ka-, ,

And what you want I say you, perhaps, that like in gaulish and celtiberian ie. *ºm,* ºn > protocelt *am-, *an- (cf. NP call. ANDERCVS < *ºn-derk-os); ie. *ºl, *ºr > protocelt. *al, *ar. But celtic language have principal distinction in the realization *r > protocelt.*ri. This realization is tipical in lusitanian and hispano-celta dialects, dearTaranis.

I bet you to count all of items, in Asturian, Callaecian, Vettonian and Lusitanian area, to come from protocelt *bhºrgh-a- > *briga- or *protocelt. *bhºrgh-s > *-brigs. This items from*r > protocelt.*ri . I assure you Taranis that, although you reunited all of -briga and its derivatives of all celtic Europe, you would not obtain a bigger number those that there we can find in the lusitanian and hispano-celta lands.

How you can see……it is a indo-european dialect, very crystalline, and as a result of its archaisms (included the *p, and the tipical indo-european syntactical order of the lusitanian inscriptions)... ‘it is the oldest celtic dialect known in Europe and the predecessor of the celtiberian language’ (Patrizia de Bernardo Stempel, 2004).
 
This discussion does not belong into genetics. I made a (obviously related) discussion here.

In any case, you're making a lot of mistakes here. I will now try to address them.

First off, you keep calling it a 'dialect'. The definition of "dialect" would imply a kind of mutual intelligibility, whereas it is very clear that we are talking about different languages. You also keep calling it an 'Indo-European dialect', which makes the whole situation seem even more absurd, because by the time when Indo-European languages were close to each other was thousands of years back, even from the perspective of 2000 years ago.

This brings me to the next major issue. You keep calling it the oldest dialect and the predecessor of Celtiberian. This is obviously impossible for two reasons. The first and more obvious issue is time: the Gallaecians and Lusitanians were an illiterate people before the Romans conquered them in the 2nd century BC. By this time, the various other Celtic-speaking peoples are already established in other parts Europe, including in Celtiberia. It's impossible to have been the ancestor because all the other languages already existed. The second is that there are the sound laws. Celtiberian shares sound laws with other Celtic languages which you are not going to find in Gallaecian-Lusitanian. And I am not only talking about the loss of *p.

The loss of *p, as mentioned, comes hand in hand with another sound change, namely *pt, ts > xs, xt. Basically, the loss of *p left a 'shadow' in front of *s and *t in the Celtic languages which produces a *x sound. This is attested in all Celtic languages, and Celtiberian, like other Celtic languages obeys to this law.

I brought up the example of the word for 'seventh', which can be demonstrated a follows:
- Latin "Septimus"
- Gaulish "Sextametos"
- Old Irish "Sechtmad"

As I said, unfortunately the word for seventh in Celtiberian is unattested, but other words which obey to the law are:

- Celtiberian 'Uxama'.
- Gaulish 'Uxello'.
- Old Irish 'Úasal'
- Breton 'Uhelez'

If Celtiberian was closer with Gallaecian-Lusitanian, how come that it shares these common laws with Gaulish and Old Irish (and indeed all other Celtic languages)? In contrast, we see the Supertamarici tribe in Gallaecia.

There is more:

Proto-Celtic, the *gw from Proto-Indo-European gets shifted to *b. This happens fairly early on because *gwh becomes *gw in Proto-Celtic and not *b. Example for this sound shift is the word for 'cow' or 'cattle':

- Celtiberian has the word attested in 'Boustom' and 'Bouitos'.
- Gaulish has it for instance in the tribal name 'Boii'.
- Old Irish ''
- Welsh 'Buwch'
- Breton 'Buc'h'

For non-Celtic cognates, take a look at German 'Kuh' and English 'Cow'. (for the record, *g becomes shifted to *k in Proto-Germanic according to Grimm's Law) and Latvian 'Govs'.

So as you can see, we find common sound laws of Celtiberian and the other Celtic languages which are absent in Gallaecian-Lusitanian. This leaves us with two scenarios:

A) Proto-Celtic evolved on the Iberian penninsula, neighbouring to Gallaecian-Lusitanian and then spread out across a huge area (but we see no such movement in archaeology?).

B) Proto-Celtic evolved elsewhere, and Gallaecian-Lusitanian indeed represents an earlier wave of Indo-Europeans into the Iberian penninsula, and the Celtiberians arrived later from outside.

Which of the two scenarios is more believable?

Regarding Lugus, he can be hardly called uniquely Iberian. You have Lugus in Gaul and Lugh in Ireland. But the deity is not even exclusively Celtic, because a reflex of Lugus exists also in Germanic, in the shape of Loki. Does this mean that the Germanic peoples too, are descended from the Gallaecians?

Regarding town names with '-briga', it is very much a strawman argument, because I might as well return the favour and ask how many town names with '-dunum' there are in Iberia and how many in the rest of Europe?
 
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Well…I have explained a possible model of celtisation using a genetical, archaeological, anthropological and liguistic point of view. Ok…I finish it, but two things:

I see that you do not read anything that I wrote above or you have not understand nothing. I said above:

‘The loss of *p … in the inner group ps is simplified to ks > ss > s, like celtiberian: call. VSEIS (DEAB[VS]) (Atas, Cualedro Our.: AF I2 155 = HEp.7.498);/celtib. U.S.E.Z.U ‘maximus’, VSVETIKVBOS, U.S.A.M.A/VXAMA (MLH V/1 pp. 463ss.) and in cantabrian celtic dialect you can see the same solution: VSEIS (MATRIS) (Laguardia Al. (ILER p. 692 49)). The Gaulish and Ligur have UXAMA.

I can not explain here all of western dialectal caracteristcs. I do not want write a book. The PN BOVIVS, BOVIA, BOVALVS, BOVALA are commons in the western dialects (callaecian, lusitanian, vetton, astur). For example, in the actual Galicia you can count more of 20 placenames called Busto, Bustelo and Busteliño. It is the same word that celtiberian BOUSTOM.

In the Celtiberian formation there is a basic, obvioust and very known archaelogical culture called Las Cogotas (read Almagro, please). This culture born in Western Hispania (vettonian area) under the Atlantic Culture influences. Las Cogotas is the primary basis of the Celtiberian culture, will later be different with the aquitanian contributions of Etxauri and the irruption of the Iberians in the NE Hispania during the urnenfelderkultur.

The concept of ‘lusitano-callaeca’ belongs to very classical linguistic ideas, over the year 1950, by U. Schmoll. I have the sensation you are not updated about hispanic prerroman languages or you have influences of the mediatic propaganda of Salamanca University: Fco. Villar and fans (like B.M. Prósper). Villar is a great indo-europeist, but an awful ethimologist.

Finally, my last words, evidently, are not mine. It belongs to one of the best especialists about the celtic languages, the italian Patrizia de Bernardo Stempel.

These are their exact words:
“La facies linguística más arcaica del celta peninsular, se encuentra en su extremo occidental […], el celtibero sólo puede explicarse a partir de estas lenguas…”

“La presencia de celtas en la Península Ibérica podría de esta manera ser más antigua que los celtas que se documentan en la Celtiberia[…], y que el celta hispano sea uno dialectos más arcaicos del grupo céltico si no el más arcaico en absoluto”

See:
Patrizia de Bernardo Stempel: ‘Centro y áreas laterales: La formación del celtibérico sobre el fondo del celta peninsular hispano’, Palaeohispánica 2, (2002), pp. 89-132.
 
Well…I have explained a possible model of celtisation using a genetical, archaeological, anthropological and liguistic point of view. Ok…I finish it, but two things:

I see that you do not read anything that I wrote above or you have not understand nothing. I said above:

‘The loss of *p … in the inner group ps is simplified to ks > ss > s, like celtiberian: call. VSEIS (DEAB[VS]) (Atas, Cualedro Our.: AF I2 155 = HEp.7.498);/celtib. U.S.E.Z.U ‘maximus’, VSVETIKVBOS, U.S.A.M.A/VXAMA (MLH V/1 pp. 463ss.) and in cantabrian celtic dialect you can see the same solution: VSEIS (MATRIS) (Laguardia Al. (ILER p. 692 49)). The Gaulish and Ligur have UXAMA.

Yes, I have read that and it makes absolutely no sense. You can either have *ps, *pt > *xs, *xt or you can retain *p from PIE. As I said, the loss of *p occurs in Proto-Celtic, ie before Gaulish, Brythonic, Goidelic and Celtiberian began to diverge. It makes absolutely no sense to see a fundamental sound law in free variation in Iberia in the 1st century BC. It is far more logical to assume that Gallaecia was a mixed area where Celtic and non-Celtic languages were spoken side by side. The retaining of PIE *p makes these languages by definition non-Celtic, because it is impossible to derive these languages from Proto-Celtic. If you look at Gallaecian tribal names, this gets very evident.

I really can't get tired of repeating a fundamental issue: you cannot ditch 100+ years of proven linguistic methodology to 'prove' that language X is related to language Y. I've said this before in the context of other of such fringe theories, such as the claim that Etruscan was related with Albanian or with Hungarian. If we ditch the methodology, what point is there maintaining that the Indo-European language family is valid? Let us ditch the concept of IE! I might as well claim that English is in fact a dialect of Quechua!
 
If you have read it, and the works of Koch & Wodtko (Palaeohispanica, 2010), C. J. Untermann (Verba, 2009) and others in this same way, and you are not agree...then you can follow with yours obsoletes teories...I think that you have Villar/Prosper overdose.

ps > ks > ss > s, is an innovation in all celtic areas of Hispania. That is known.

MMM...how can you explain gaulish god name APADEVA or the gaulish tribes PICTONES, PLEUXII?. Evidently, the p loss was not in protoceltic...
 

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