I've been reading this forum and also other different sources about genetics for some time. There is one thing which constantly catches my eyes and is concerning Slavic settlement in the Balkans.
History says that there was a massive Slavic settlement in Balkans in 6th-7th century. This would imply significant percentage of some Slavic genetic marker in today's population in Balkans but no one credibly explained who genetically are those people that settled in mentioned period.
Usually R1a is considered as Slavic haplogroup but in case of South Slavs this haplogroup does not match needed large share. This further implies that I2a2 could be this haplogroup which would be connected to those people.
It is also known from history that Serbs and Croats migrated to Balkans from regions in Central Europe but there are theories which explain their previous migration (in 4th centurty) from north Black Sea region to those areas in central Europe. And it is also almost a fact that Bulgaria was settled by tribes who lived between Carpathians and Black Sea.
And as last thing, there are several sources which support the idea of Iranian language origin of names for Serbs, Croats, Antes. History also says that before being Slavicized Sarmatian tribes (and it is confirmed Antes are related to Sarmatians) spoke language belonging to Iranian group of languages.
By connecting all these facts and assumptions do you think I2a2 could be connected to people who lived North of the Black See in Roman times and those are Sarmatians. This would of course imply that Serbs, Croats, Macedonians, Bosnians and Bulgarians can trace their origin in Sarmatia.
That kind of conclusion would set R1a as only Slavic marker and would also explain genetic difference in South and the rest of the Slavs.
One more thing that backs up this theory is high I2a2 frequencies in historical area of Sarmatians (around today’s Moldova).
History says that there was a massive Slavic settlement in Balkans in 6th-7th century. This would imply significant percentage of some Slavic genetic marker in today's population in Balkans but no one credibly explained who genetically are those people that settled in mentioned period.
Usually R1a is considered as Slavic haplogroup but in case of South Slavs this haplogroup does not match needed large share. This further implies that I2a2 could be this haplogroup which would be connected to those people.
It is also known from history that Serbs and Croats migrated to Balkans from regions in Central Europe but there are theories which explain their previous migration (in 4th centurty) from north Black Sea region to those areas in central Europe. And it is also almost a fact that Bulgaria was settled by tribes who lived between Carpathians and Black Sea.
And as last thing, there are several sources which support the idea of Iranian language origin of names for Serbs, Croats, Antes. History also says that before being Slavicized Sarmatian tribes (and it is confirmed Antes are related to Sarmatians) spoke language belonging to Iranian group of languages.
By connecting all these facts and assumptions do you think I2a2 could be connected to people who lived North of the Black See in Roman times and those are Sarmatians. This would of course imply that Serbs, Croats, Macedonians, Bosnians and Bulgarians can trace their origin in Sarmatia.
That kind of conclusion would set R1a as only Slavic marker and would also explain genetic difference in South and the rest of the Slavs.
One more thing that backs up this theory is high I2a2 frequencies in historical area of Sarmatians (around today’s Moldova).
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