Well one of "symptoms" of such ethnic agenda on your part was assuming that if Teal people came from the south, then they belonged to "Italian" R1b haplogroup.
The truth is that EHG Samara hunter was R1b, and had no "Teal" admixture, while Khvalynsk samples were mixed - one R1a, one R1b - and both had 25% "Teal".
So R1b was in the steppe before Teal admixture came, while the first sample of steppe R1a appears in a Teal-admixed population.
There are also claims here, that "Teal people" probably came from Iran. Perhaps nobody remembers Underhill's 2014 study on R1a, in which he claimed that R1a was originally spreading from Iran or from West Asia, due to the fact that it's basal clades are most abundant there (it seems that Goga also has such a basal clade of R1a). One of users from Anthrogenica also posted autosomal stuff, which shows that modern R1a-rich Kurds are a good proxy for Teal / CHGs - better than Armenians.
Not that I am necessarily supporting this idea in its entirety, I am just posting this to illustrate that assuming that if anything came from the south then it automatically had to be R1b rather than R1a, is totally wrong.
In modern times in West Asia R1b-Z2103 is not even more numerous than R1a-Z93, both are roughly on par - but it is irrelevant because we are not talking about Z2103 and Z93, but about M269/L23 and M198/M417.
So modern frequencies of some very late branches are irrelevant when we are talking about origins of more basal lineages.
What on earth are you talking about? Your post is totally incoherent.
I have no special attachment to "R1b", Italic or otherwise. I don't even know my father's y dna line, nor do I care. I leave this kind of atavistic nonsense to you guys.
I also have no special attachment to the Indo-Europeans. I'm perfectly aware that the language I speak and much of the culture I inherited owes a great deal to them, but that doesn't stop me from finding a lot of the hallmarks of the Indo-European culture very unattractive, and I think it's a damn shame that the Balkan cultures fell. Every time we claw ourselves up toward some kind of civilization, less advanced cultures from the fringes bring it all crashing down and we have to start building it up all over again. This has been repeated ad nauseam throughout human history. So, whether the proto Indo-European language first developed south of the Caucasus or north of it is immaterial to me,I although as I've opined before, on balance I think the Pontic-Caspian steppe is the "least bad" option.
I also don't know whether the "teal" in the Indo-Europeans came strictly from women or also from men through some version of the scenario that Maciamo has proffered. There isn't enough ancient dna yet for firm conclusions so far as I can see. I don't care either way about that either, but apparently for some weird combination of "ethnic" or "racialist" ideology combined with macho posturing some of you guys do.
As to culture, it's clear to me that other than the domestication of the horse and the marrying of wheeled vehicles and pastoralism, everything else was borrowed either from the Balkans or from Maykop. There's nothing wrong with that. I actually admire the Indo-Europeans for their ability to take technology from other, more advanced cultures, adapt it to their own particular environment and then make further developments on their own.
Perhaps you should stop projecting your own world view, prejudices, agenda, and inability to be objective about history onto other people. I'd also advise using less emotion and more reason when attempting to understand pre-history.
As to your specific complaint about the moved posts, luckily I am not the only moderator here. If you feel that some posts have not been preserved for posterity in the proper thread, address your concerns to LeBroc.
For further clarity about my point of view, see LeBroc's post number 203 and the accompanying link.
With regard to my original post about Corded Ware peoples,I don't think we have enough data to decide which scenario is closest to what actually happened, but I am leaning toward thinking that the proto-Corded Ware people were a related group and not the result of a migration from Yamnaya, because if they were transplants it's unclear why they didn't have all the hallmarks of the Indo-European "package".
I'm quite aware of the nature of the Khvalysk culture, and that it was beginning to be mixed "genetically". I was attempting a bit of humorous exaggeration to show how ridiculous it can become to try to push the "Indo-Europeans" as a specific group of people too far into the past. As to the nature of the Khvalysk culture, classifying it as a "Copper Age" culture is rather misleading, in my opinion. It's clear to me that although one can see the beginnings of the Indo-European "package" in the archaeological remains, they still had a long way to go: they had domesticated animals, but their only copper was of the ornamental kind and came from the Balkans as they had no copper metallurgy of their own, early graves were communal, and even when later on individual graves are found there is no great evidence of social stratification as would be seen by more material wealth in the graves of any "chiefs". I'm unclear about the nature and extent of the agriculture they practiced.
Perhaps they hadn't imported enough "Teal" wives yet, with their superior culture?
As for their language, according to Anthony, perhaps by 4,000 BC people in the western steppe tribes were speaking "archaic" dialects of "proto Indo-European" similar to "Anatolian".
https://books.google.com/books?id=0...AEISTAJ#v=onepage&q=Khvalynsk culture&f=false
Now that bit of housekeeping has been taken care of, our discussion is at an end.