You're being very unfair to the point that you're grossly misreporting the @lezagacy series of posts without really understanding them. I don't follow all the time such posts but I saw his models posted in many places so I decided to read them before deciding whether I agree or not.
The linguistic argument you bring up is very odd and illogical. Why would a "linguistic signal" be found? There are many regions in the central Mediterranean which have much higher East Med ancestry which shows up not just via admixture but via Y-DNA, but they don't have any Anatolian/Semitic linguistic influence. Secondary admixture never resembles linguistic ancestry in a strict way and many times it doesn't follow it at all. Do Serbs speak a half Slavic half Balkan language? Do Hungarians speak a Slavic-Celtic language with very small Ugric influence? Do Romanians speak Slavic mixed with Balkan with no Latin influence at all or do they speak a Latin-based language despite having no Italic origins? I can go on and on.
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His models show that medieval Albanian samples can be best modeled as having Illyrian ancestry ranging from 76% to 100% and Eastern Mediterranean ancestry ranging from 0% to 24%. MENA Balkan has about 55% Balkan and 45% East Med or Anatolian ancestry, so 30% MENA Balkan ancestry means 13.5% East Med or Anatolian ancestry. Three out of six of his best working models show medieval Albanians having less than 15% East Med ancestry, two show that it was around 18% and only one shows it as being 24%. So you're distorting his models because if you read them fairly and neutrally, the average East Med ancestry based on all TRUE/TRUE/TRUE models is around
14%, which is exactly what you should expect for medieval Albanians as the only Paleo-Balkan people. Some contacts with incoming Anatolians in the Balkans and admixture with them combined with the preservation of the old profile.
There are many samples who have local and Anatolian admixture in the Roman Balkans, many of them are E-V13. There's a Doclean noble who is J-L283 and his admixture is 75% Illyrian, 20-25% east Med. I recall seeing a post by you about Constantine the Great in this forum. His mother was from Anatolia, so unless she descended solely from Balkan settlers in Anatolia he was half Anatolian. Thrace in this era must have been settled by a lot more Anatolians than the west Balkans as Thracians were in fact the nearest European group to Anatolians.
You disagree with his models because you don't accept the fact that medieval Albanians can be modeled as having on average over 80-85% Illyrian admixture. This is your real disagreement with @lezagacy, not the made up MENA argument you posted, which is a distortion of his models. The models stand on their own though and they actually pass as TRUE/TRUE/TRUE.