Which is more European ? Finno-ugric languages or Indo-European languages?

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Does the ANE component mainly represent bronze age IE migration?

It appears that the Corded Ware folk, who appear to have been R1a, were ANE and it's assumed by many that the IE folk were primarily R1a and ANE, so there seems to be a genetic connection between the two groups, despite the differences in their culture. We'll know more once DNA results from Proto-IE folk are published.
 
LoL, this i just a hate thread. The title itself says so :)
 
It appears that the Corded Ware folk, who appear to have been R1a, were ANE and it's assumed by many that the IE folk were primarily R1a and ANE, so there seems to be a genetic connection between the two groups, despite the differences in their culture. We'll know more once DNA results from Proto-IE folk are published.

Alright thanks. :)
 
LoL, this i just a hate thread. The title itself says so :)
I would say insecurity and need for validation as full value European. Can you imagine what would happen if it turned that IE is more European than Finno-Uralic?! Oh the consequences...lol.
 
I would say insecurity and need for validation as full value European. Can you imagine what would happen if it turned that IE is more European than Finno-Uralic?! Oh the consequences...lol.

The numbers show, that there are much more IE speakers in Asia than in Europe. Numbers are stubborn things.
 
I would say insecurity and need for validation as full value European. Can you imagine what would happen if it turned that IE is more European than Finno-Uralic?! Oh the consequences...lol.

I'm pretty sure that's what's behind all the strange posts. The OP is embarrassed that Hungarians speak an "Asian" language that probably originally arose within a group of N1c type folk, so he wants to imagine that the Uralic language group originated in Hungary or some such nonsense. Except that's too ridiculous for even him to say out loud. But if he'd only listen to people, it's already been explained to him that Hungarians are pretty typical Europeans who happen to speak a Uralic language because of an accident of history involving invaders who seem to have left very little genetic footprint behind. In some of my posts, I did make fun of Hungarians a bit because I didn't like the racist tone of the OP and was just giving it back to him a bit, but any haplotype or autosomal analysis of Hungarians makes them very European, even if they do speak a funny language.
 
I'm pretty sure that's what's behind all the strange posts. The OP is embarrassed that Hungarians speak an "Asian" language that probably originally arose within a group of N1c type folk, so he wants to imagine that the Uralic language group originated in Hungary or some such nonsense. Except that's too ridiculous for even him to say out loud. But if he'd only listen to people, it's already been explained to him that Hungarians are pretty typical Europeans who happen to speak a Uralic language because of an accident of history involving invaders who seem to have left very little genetic footprint behind. In some of my posts, I did make fun of Hungarians a bit because I didn't like the racist tone of the OP and was just giving it back to him a bit, but any haplotype or autosomal analysis of Hungarians makes them very European, even if they do speak a funny language.


Wrong. Finno-Ugric languages were born in North Eastern Europe, as I stated in my previous post. There are no modern linguist scientist who think it otherwise. However IE languages came from Asia , where r1a was born. Western europeans are not descendants of IE speakers. Have you ever heard of language shift, dealer-language or lingua franca?


I did not open racist thread. It was about average pigmentation, which is part of physical anthropology. Do you think that physical anthropology is a racist science?
 
Neither is more European than the other. European is a general term when talking about genetics. Extremes within Europe like Greeks, Sardinians, and Lithuanians are very separate. Overall Greeks are closer to modern west Asians than to far northern Europeans. European can generally be defined as near eastern ancestry from Europe's first farmers, WHG ancestry from Mesolithic Europeans, and maybe ANE ancestry from Mesolithic Europeans. Most Europeans fall within the extremes in a very closely related cluster. Europe should be treated as a region of Eurasia like west Asia, not a world separated from Asia by rivers of fire.

Proto-Indo Europeans probably can't be defined as west Asian or European, they were themselves. If they lacked WHG that makes them really separate from Europeans and if their near eastern-WHG-ANE ancestry came from mostly the same source as Europeans that makes them closely connected to the Europeans who were contemporary to them. All we can say is that they were west Eurasian(ANE, WHG, ENF).

Uralic languages I've heard originated in a mostly ENA people in Siberia, so not really European or even west Eurasian at all.
 
Neither is more European than the other. European is a general term when talking about genetics. Extremes within Europe like Greeks, Sardinians, and Lithuanians are very separate. Overall Greeks are closer to modern west Asians than to far northern Europeans. European can generally be defined as near eastern ancestry from Europe's first farmers, WHG ancestry from Mesolithic Europeans, and maybe ANE ancestry from Mesolithic Europeans. Most Europeans fall within the extremes in a very closely related cluster. Europe should be treated as a region of Eurasia like west Asia, not a world separated from Asia by rivers of fire.

Proto-Indo Europeans probably can't be defined as west Asian or European, they were themselves. If they lacked WHG that makes them really separate from Europeans and if their near eastern-WHG-ANE ancestry came from mostly the same source as Europeans that makes them closely connected to the Europeans who were contemporary to them. All we can say is that they were west Eurasian(ANE, WHG, ENF).

Uralic languages I've heard originated in a mostly ENA people in Siberia, so not really European or even west Eurasian at all.

Read only the books of modern (after 2000) academic linguists. All of them consider the possible origin of Finno-ugric languages between the Ural and Baltic Sea.
 
When I lived in Toronto I had an Estonian, Hungarian and Finnish friends. They told me they can understand each other or the languages are very similar (could be dialects). Probably way back in history they were from the same tribe or region.
 
When I lived in Toronto I had an Estonian, Hungarian and Finnish friends. They told me they can understand each other or the languages are very similar (could be dialects). Probably way back in history they were from the same tribe or region.


It is similar , like the Persian and Irish languages. Both Irish and pharsi (persian) languages belong to the IE languages. So we are unable to understand Finns.
 
Neither is more European than the other. European is a general term when talking about genetics. Extremes within Europe like Greeks, Sardinians, and Lithuanians are very separate. Overall Greeks are closer to modern west Asians than to far northern Europeans. European can generally be defined as near eastern ancestry from Europe's first farmers, WHG ancestry from Mesolithic Europeans, and maybe ANE ancestry from Mesolithic Europeans. Most Europeans fall within the extremes in a very closely related cluster. Europe should be treated as a region of Eurasia like west Asia, not a world separated from Asia by rivers of fire.

Proto-Indo Europeans probably can't be defined as west Asian or European, they were themselves. If they lacked WHG that makes them really separate from Europeans and if their near eastern-WHG-ANE ancestry came from mostly the same source as Europeans that makes them closely connected to the Europeans who were contemporary to them. All we can say is that they were west Eurasian(ANE, WHG, ENF).

Uralic languages I've heard originated in a mostly ENA people in Siberia, so not really European or even west Eurasian at all.

I´ve heard that Uralic languages originated in North East Europe.
 
Finno-Uralic and Indo-European languages don't have a single birthplace origin, so they are not genuine and not enabled to claim originality (they don't know exactly where they are from). The most European language is the unclassified Basque language with a single Iberian origin.
 
Finno-Uralic and Indo-European languages don't have a single birthplace origin, so they are not genuine and not enabled to claim originality (they don't know exactly where they are from). The most European language is the unclassified Basque language with a single Iberian origin.

wow!
Finno-Uralic?Wonderful!Are you a linguist?
 
I´ve heard that Uralic languages originated in North East Europe.

I've heard all kinds of silly things that aren't true. If Uralic languages originated in northeastern Europe, why are the oldest forms of Uralic in Siberia? And how does that fit with the arc of N1c ancestry appearing to move from China across Siberia then into Russia and Scandinavia?
 
Neither is more European than the other. European is a general term when talking about genetics. Extremes within Europe like Greeks, Sardinians, and Lithuanians are very separate. Overall Greeks are closer to modern west Asians than to far northern Europeans.

That's true, AJs and Greeks share a significant level of IBD sharing. Greeks are on the extreme of the average European (because they still have WHG outside of their EEF), beyond that are the AJs/Sicilians/Maltese who lack WHG outside of their EEF (however they do have WHG or a related unknown HG that comes from the same west Eurasian source inside the EEF) and plot in the gap between Greeks and Cypriots, and seem to bridge the gap between Europe and the near east.

European can generally be defined as near eastern ancestry from Europe's first farmers, WHG ancestry from Mesolithic Europeans, and maybe ANE ancestry from Mesolithic Europeans. Most Europeans fall within the extremes in a very closely related cluster. Europe should be treated as a region of Eurasia like west Asia, not a world separated from Asia by rivers of fire.

Proto-Indo Europeans probably can't be defined as west Asian or European, they were themselves. If they lacked WHG that makes them really separate from Europeans and if their near eastern-WHG-ANE ancestry came from mostly the same source as Europeans that makes them closely connected to the Europeans who were contemporary to them. All we can say is that they were west Eurasian(ANE, WHG, ENF).

From what I heard there hasn't yet been a full genome analysis of a PIE, so it's unknown if they had WHG/UHG or ENF/basal Eurasian but it's suggested that they had ANE.
 
When I lived in Toronto I had an Estonian, Hungarian and Finnish friends. They told me they can understand each other or the languages are very similar (could be dialects). Probably way back in history they were from the same tribe or region.

very astonishing thread!
my modest thoughts!
are we looking for a 'authentic aborigenic european citizenship attestation' of our languages??? I don't care, as do others here, with good sense
I leave aside the remarks concerning levels of culture or other rubbish judgements about grammar
now:
firstable I think the "age" of some surveys does not always deprive them of worth! some new theories are worst than some old ones!
geographic supposed origin of P-I-E ? 'm still between two thoughts: an Eastern European one or a South-Caucasus one
geographic supposed origin of Uralic languages? between Norrth-Eastern Europe and Siberia: for I red the cradle or Finnic-Ugric languages would have been around the Urals, their older "father" language could have been spoken in Eastern Siberia or not, I don't know -
what is funny is the two proto-languages seem having been in contact sometime, surely not too far from the Northern Volga!!!

two recent studies seem supporting this:
1- among Saami finnic there would have been a proto-satem-IE language and a proto-Basque
2- an IE language and un unknown language would have been spoken in Finland before the finnic (the first finnic in Finland would have been saamic, before their climbig towards current Lappland)
all that doesn't point to an autochtonous Finnic in the Western part of North-Eastern Europe, even if languages loans could have occurred in the Northern Steppes - concerning Hungarian, the old theories place them too near the Urals - I'm aware only of the ALINEI theory saying Hungarian is old in Central Europe and akin in some part to etruscan (!) -
here some recent "news" with Jaako HÄKKINEN

Early Contacts between Uralic and Yukaghir
Jaakko Hakkinen
Link
Finnish linguist Jaako Hakkinen based in at Helsinki University has been making interesting and informative comments on GeoCurrents in conjunction with the discussion around the homeland of Indo-Europeans and the dates of Indo-European divergence. He has also made available on his website a number of articles and handouts in Finnish and English on various aspects of Uralic prehistory. I chose one to comment on the current state of our knowledge of the Uralic homeland from linguistic data.
Although the title of the paper refers to the nitty-gritty details of Uralo-Yukaghir lexical contacts, a bulk of the paper is devoted to a discussion of the reasons behind Häkkinen’s choice of the Lower Kama as Uralic homeland (see circle on the map below, from Hakkinen’s Finnish article “Kantauralin ajoitus ja paikannus: perustelut puntarissa,” Suomalais-Ugrilaisen Seuran Aikakauskirja 92, 2009, 56).

The numbers inside the circle refer to the locations derived from the reconstructed forest vocabulary and from Indo-European loans

Here are some of the highlights from Hakkinen’s research that caught my eye.
1. Yukaghir is not part of Uralic (contra the widely-spread opinion derived from Irina Nikoaleva’s Russian dissertation (Николаева И. А. Проблема урало-юкагирских генетических связей. Автореф. дис. … канд. филол. наук. М., 1988.). Instead, all the lexical parallels (56 by Hakkinen’s count) between the two languages are loans from Uralic into Yukaghir. Interestingly, the relative chronology of these loans as seen in the light of the relative chronology of Altaic to Yukaghir loans require the postulation of two waves of Uralic-Yukaghir contacts, one at the level of Pre-Proto-Uralic, the other on the Samoyedic level.
2. Samoyedic cannot be considered the most divergent among Uralic branches. Hakkinen questions the reliability of language splits derived from lexical innovations. These patterns can result in what he calls “false divergence.” Since phonologically Samoyedic shares many innovations with Ugric, it is unlikely that it split from proto-Uralic earlier than Ugric. This results in a symmetrical west-east pattern of divergence between Uralic languages (see below)

From: Hakkinen, J. “Problems in the method and interpretations of the
computational phylogenetics based on linguistic data An example of wishful thinking: Bouckaert et al. 2012,” September 2012, with data from Hakkinen, J. “Kantauralin murteutuminen vokaalivastaavuuksien valossa,” University of Helsinki, Faculty of Arts, Department of Finno-Ugrian Studies, 2007.

I am very sympathetic to the phonology-only filter for language phylogenies, as “basic vocabulary” arguments and calculations of divergence times on their basis are always unconvincing because words, no matter how “basic” are subject to various forces of change (borrowing, etc.) and deliberate modification by speakers that have nothing to do with population divergence.
3. With the Yukaghir-Uralic genetic link severed and with Samoyedic rolled under “East Uralic,” the conservatism of Finnic and Saami comes to the fore as the primary reason for Hakkinen to seek the Uralic homeland west of the Urals. He is hesitant about shifting the homeland too close to the current area of the distribution of Finnic and Saami because a) Saami place-names attest to the movement of Saami from the Ladoga Lake area within the past 2000 years; b) because there seems to be a foreign substratum in West Uralic pointing to the fact that westernmost territories were at some point occupied by non-Uralic speakers; and c) because there are no borrowed items between proto-Uralic and Early Proto-Indo-European (as there are Late Proto-Indo-European borrowings into proto-Uralic), which one would expect if the Uralic homeland had a more westerly location. The absence of Early Proto-Indo-European loans in proto-Uralic is a key reason for Hakkinen to seek Uralic homeland as far away from the Pontic steppe as possible, provided that the formal conservatism of Finnish and Saami is given credit.
With some help from archaeology, Hakkinen identifies proto-Uralic with Eneolithic Garino-Bor (Turbin) culture 3,000-2,500 YBP located in the Lower Kama Basin.
4. But when Hakkinen extends beyond proto-Uralic, he is is forced to acknowledge, following his mentor, Juha Janhunen, that the structural parallels between Uralic and Altaic are so strong that these two language families had to be in close and prolonged contact with each other at some point.
“Juha Janhunen has repeatedly argued that the Ural-Altaic typological complex is an areally distinct unit with clear-cut boundaries in every direction against languages of different typology, and that the Ural-Altaic typology must have had one original centre of expansion. As the earliest protolanguages of the Al- taic language families (Proto-Turkic, Proto-Mongolic and Proto-Tungusic) can be traced back to Greater Manchuria (up to Mongolia; Janhunen 1996: 216), this view requires that Pre-Proto-Uralic must also have been present somewhere adjacent to them. According to Janhunen there is no significant chance that Pre-Proto-Uralic could have developed a structural typology so similar to the Altaic languages without being in close contact with them.”
So, Hakkinen places Pre-Proto-Uralic in South Siberia in the Sayan Mountains, or again back east of the Urals.
I completely concur with Janhunen and Hakkinen that Uralo-Altaic requires at least a Sprachbund to explain their shared linguistic patterns. A recent global analysis of structural stability between languages reaffirmed the special connection between Uralic, Altaic (Mongolic + Turkic) as well as Indo-European. Kinship studies offers another take on this problem. Most Uralic and Altaic (Tungusic and Turkic) kinship terminologies display a unique and systematic trait called Sliding Generation, or Siberian Generational System (скользящий счет поколений, сибирский генерационный тип, in Russian-language literature). It is not observed in Sino-Tibetan, Paleoasiatic, Indo-European, Nivkh (it may belong with Paleoasiatic, per Michael Fortescue), Japanese, Korean or Dravidian. It was lost from some Southern and Western Turkic languages (Azerbaijani, Nogay, Gagauz, Crimean Tatar, etc.) and borrowed into Ket and, possibly, Yukaghir. However, I do not think that a more northern area as a source for both pre-Proto-Uralic and proto-Altaic can be excluded. It appears that Saami may retain a kin terminological system which is ancestral to Sliding Generation System. It makes a more northerly location closer to the Circumpolar zone a possible source for the Uralic-Altaic Sprachbund. This, in turn, would make perfect sense if the Uralo-Eskimo proposal advanced by Fortescue and Uwe Seefloth turns out to be valid. At this point it is a long-range hypothesis and hence very uncertain. For instance, while Fortescue and Seefloth counted Yukaghir as Uralic, Hakkinen has argued against the genetic nature of the link (see above).
Tags: Altaic, false divergence, Indo-European, Jaako Hakkinen, Juha Janhunen, kinship systems, Linguistics, phylogenetic trees, Saami, Samoyedic, Uralic, Uralo-Altaic Sprachbund, Yukaghir


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  1. Jaakko Häkkinen October 3, 2012 at 12:53 pm · Reply
    A thorough review!
    I have to find out the argumentation of Seefloth. But still, even if Eskimo-Uralic hypothesis is seen as plausible, the “homeland” could still be southern. Native Americans, Yukaghirs, and Yakuts for example are derived from the Southern Siberia. Uralic and Altaic language families point to the original southern area, why not Eskimo-Aleut, too?
    According to the comments by Ante Aikio, there may be more common between Eskimo and Samoyedic than other Uralic – a similar case is seen also with Yukaghir and Samoyed at the morphological level.
    http://listserv.linguistlist.org/cgi-bin/wa?A2=ind0106&L=nostratic&D=1&F=&S=&P=193
 
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