Melancon
Banned
- Messages
- 467
- Reaction score
- 35
- Points
- 0
- Location
- Lafayette, Louisiana
- Ethnic group
- Celto-Germanic (70% Cajun French - 30% English)
- Y-DNA haplogroup
- R1b (S21) - Nordic
- mtDNA haplogroup
- H (H1) - Atlantid
You may be right; but these analysis still seem a bit farfetched to me. If La Brana and other Paleolithic Y-DNA I men originally had dark skin and blue eyes; how come that the dark skin gene is not more common than the fair skin gene? If fair skin Europeans mixed with dark skinned Europeans, how come the white fair skin is more dominant than the darker skin? Even though the blue eyes are dominate as a recessive gene; the dark skin that came with these blue eyed dominant people; should also be as dominant as their blue eyes. But for some reason, the white fair skin gene is more dominant than the dark skin gene. -- That doesn't make any sense to me.I also don't think you quite appreciate the fact that most Europeans carry a big chunk of the genes of these "hybrid" hunter gatherers like La Brana and Loschbour. That's how WHG is defined, you know. The English, for example, carry 36% of it, and the French 31%, so I would imagine your numbers are around that somewhere. Then, of course, there's Mal'ta. (Raghvan et al) Everyone in Europe has a chunk of that, and so far as I can tell, Mal'ta boy probably looked like a dark Central Asian, if not rather Australoid.
Did you know most Mestizos such as Mexicans; on average have 65% White Spanish ancestry; and 45% Native American Indian ancestry? How come their skin is darker than a Europeans now; even though most of their Hispanic ancestry is over 50% European on average? How come their skin is darker and tanned? This suggests that the darker skin genes are more dominant than the fair skin genes. And also, there ARE blonde Mexicans/Mestizos, in case you haven't noticed.
Did you also know that Native Americans are descended from the same group of people of pre-Siberia? How is it, that they managed to develop darker skin while the East Asians remained fair skined? Both races (Siberian Asians and Native Americans) seem to share Y-DNA Q1a2.
Did these pre-Native American Siberian people manage to find dark-skinned Australoids or Middle Eastern people, on their way to the Behring Strait to cross into North America? And bred with them? Thus, it now makes sense that these proto-Native Americans who had fair skin are now dark skinned Native Americans, right?
Ahahaha, no.
Do you see the logical fallacy in this assessment? If Native American indians came from pre-Siberians or pre-Eastern Asians as theorized, how in the world did they manage to lose their fair skin in favor of darker skin?
What you and Aberdeen seem to be suggesting is that white Europeans are a mix-race. If white Europeans are a mix of races; then that must suggest that Native Americans are also a mix of races, for losing their fair skin in favor of darker skin. (However that happened. Sarcastic.)