Johannes
Regular Member
- Messages
- 435
- Reaction score
- 33
- Points
- 0
- Ethnic group
- Celtic/Germanic/Basque
- Y-DNA haplogroup
- I2a1
Less than 25% of Yamnaya Y DNA samples so far are I2a, if you include what Haak found which was all R1b. I2a in Yamnaya is no suprise, because it;s such an old paternal lineage that was dominate in Mesolithic Central-West Europeans. At sompoint it would have found it's way to Russia. Bell beaker was not apart of the Yamnaya culture. Central European(no other region has been tested) Bell Beaker had ancestry from Yamnaya-type people.
We only have DNA from Central European Bell Beaker folk. There's a good chance the Bell beaker folk in Iberia were 100% Neolithic-descended, and therefore no R1b1a2. They would have been mostly I2a and G2a. The "Iberians" are an Iron age ethnic group. You can make theories about their origins and say they derive from earlier Iberians, but there's no prove. We can only speak of them in Iron age sense, and word of their existence in anyother era should be treated as theory. By the Iron age R1b-L11 had probably already mades it's way to the "Iberians".
Then why does it show in the areas were the Iberians lived 60-80% R1b???? Has it ever occurred to you that if Iberians were not R1b, then how did it all that massive R1b DNA get there??? They did not have jets or cars then. Your opinions is all guesses and poor ones at that. The Iberian peninsula has more R1b than France, Germany, and England. This clearly shows that the Iberians (both Celtic and Iberian) are a homogeneous population.
How do you know they were Iron Age people??? You treat the "Iberians" as if they were not important. Yet they occupied almost half the Iberian peninsula and the Celts the other. That's larger than France. So it is obvious that R1b had something to do with the Iberians.
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